Designing the Organization Coursera Quiz Answers

All Weeks Designing the Organization Coursera Quiz Answers

Quiz : Orientation Quiz

Q1. This course includes ___ modules.

  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5

Q2. I am required to purchase a textbook for this course.

  • True
  • False

Q3. Which of the following activities is NOT required in each module?

  • Watch the lecture videos.
  • Complete the practice lesson quizzes.
  • Complete the module quizzes.
  • Complete the peer assessment.

Q4. The following tool(s) will help me use the discussion forums:

  • Upvoting posts
  • Reporting inappropriate posts
  • Following a thread
  • All of the other options are correct.

Q5. If I have a problem with the course I should:

  • Email the instructor
  • Call the instructor
  • Drop the class
  • Report it to the Learner Help Center (if the problem is technical) or to the Content Issues forum (if the problem is an error in the course materials)

Q6. Which of the following activity is optional?

  • Module Quizzes
  • Lectures
  • Peer review assignment
  • Discussion

Q7. Supplemental readings are optional.

  • True
  • False

Q8. You may attempt each Module Quiz two times every four hours.

  • True
  • False

Lesson 1.1 Practice Quiz

Q1. Leaders within an organization should help employees connect with the larger purposes of the organization.

  • True
  • False

Q2. Governance is fundamentally about two things. Check all that apply.

  • Purpose
  • Day-to-day operations
  • Efficiency
  • Control

Q3. In the end, governance is all about:

  • Future outlook
  • Effective leadership
  • Proper spending
  • Teamwork amongst departments

Lesson 1.2 Practice Quiz

Q1. In relation to the purpose of a business, we sometimes see debates between those who believe that the purpose of the firm is to pursue profit and those who claim that firms have a social responsibility.

  • True
  • False

Q2. Milton Friedman stated that firms should pursue profits by any means possible.

  • True
  • False

Q3. A stakeholder perspective suggests that firms have to interact with and meet the needs of stakeholders such as: (Check all that apply.)

  • Customers
  • Governments
  • Employees
  • Suppliers
  • Creditors

Q4. The stakeholder perspective has been criticized for _____.

  • facilitating myopic decision-making
  • ambiguity regarding how to balance the demands of different constituencies
  • focusing on long-term results
  • providing an overly narrow perspective

Q5. The stakeholder perspective recognizes the complexities of the many players with an interest in the firm and gives specific guidelines to managers on how to balance the demands of different constituencies.

  • True
  • False

Lesson 1.3 Practice Quiz

Q1. Efforts to build purpose in an organization are motivated by employee disengagement.

  • True
  • False

Q2. Successful organizations help people to connect their work to a purpose beyond their economic self-interest.

  • True
  • False

Q3. Satisfying the needs of customers by providing something desirable and of value can help employees connect to a larger purpose beyond monetary gain.

  • True
  • False

Q4. When employees feel like their position in the organization makes a difference and has purpose beyond monetary gain, their job becomes more meaningful and motivating.

  • True
  • False

Lesson 1.4 Practice Quiz

Q1. A mission statement is typically a broad declaration of an organization’s purpose.

  • True
  • False

Q2. A good mission statement always identifies the organization’s purpose, the organization’s products and services, and the organization’s customers.

  • True
  • False

Q3. Mission statements are typically intended to clarify values and encourage ethical behavior, help with strategy and planning, articulate purpose, or accomplish some combination of these goals.

  • True
  • False

Q4. A mission statement will have the greatest impact when top managers commit to lead and live by it.

  • True
  • False

Q5. It’s imperative that mission statements are developed by top management.

  • True
  • False

Lesson 1.5 Practice Quiz

Q1. Agency theory is primarily a natural system view of governance in organizations

  • True
  • False

Q2. According to agency theory, the principals in the principal-agent relationship are the owners of the firm

  • True
  • False

Q3. The relationship between shareholders and executives is an example of a principal-agent relationship within a large corporation.

  • True
  • False

Q4. The responsibility of a board of directors is to:

  • All of the above
  • Compensate management
  • Evaluate management
  • Fire management
  • Hire management

Q5. The interests of shareholders and managers may not align because:

  • Managers pursue projects that don’t maximize returns.
  • Shareholders want to see returns over a different time horizon.
  • All of the above
  • Managers don’t work hard enough.
  • Managers may be too risk averse

Lesson 1.6 Practice Quiz

Q1. Research shows that firms that appoint more outside directors and that separate the role of Board Chair and CEO almost always outperform those that don’t.

  • True
  • False

Q2. Pluralistic ignorance is the leading cause of dysfunction on corporate boards.

  • True
  • False

Q3. A natural system lens view of corporate governance tends to focus on:

  • A machine-like view of governance and control
  • The effect of incentives of board motivation
  • Structural aspects of the board
  • The individuals involved in corporate governance and their interactions.

Lesson 1.7 Practice Quiz

Q1. Efficiency is the best measure of organizational effectiveness.

  • True
  • False

Q2. From a natural system perspective, success can be measured by financial metrics and outcomes related to quality.

  • True
  • False

Q3. Measuring the adaptability of an organization and its ability to meet the needs of its stakeholders becomes most salient through a natural system lens?

  • True
  • False

Q4. A balanced scorecard is a multifaceted approach to measuring an organization’s effectiveness.

  • True
  • False

Q5. Lagging indicators tend to be easier to measure than leading indicators.

  • True
  • False

Quiz : Purpose and Governance

Q1. Governance is fundamentally about two things. Check all that apply.

  • Control
  • Purpose
  • Day-to-day operations
  • Efficiency

Q2. In relation to the purpose of a business, we sometimes see debates between those who believe that the purpose of the firm is to pursue profit and those who claim that_______

  • Firms should provide strong leadership.
  • Firms have a social responsibility.
  • Firms have to cut down on costs.
  • Management needs to build competitive advantage.

Q3. A stakeholder perspective suggests that firms have to interact with and meet the needs of stakeholders such as: (Check all that apply.)

  • Governments
  • Suppliers
  • Creditors
  • Employees
  • Customers

Q4. The shareholder value perspective is sometimes criticized for ______.

  • leading to a focus on short term results
  • failing to prioritize the demands of different constituencies
  • lacking specific guidance for managers
  • providing unclear performance metrics

Q5. Agency theory is primarily a natural system view of governance in organizations.

  • True
  • False

Q6. Agency theory is primarily concerned with the relationship between:

  • Principals and agents
  • stakeholders and managers
  • Executives and employees
  • Agents and managers

Q7. Pluralistic ignorance is the leading cause of dysfunction on corporate boards.

  • True
  • False

Q8. Efficiency is the best measure of organizational effectiveness.

  • True
  • False

Q9. Lagging indicators tend to be easier to measure than leading indicators.

  • True
  • False

Q10. For a mission statement to be effective, top managers must act in a way that is consistent with the organization’s mission statement.

  • True
  • False

Designing the Organization Week 02 Quiz Answers

Lesson 2.1 Practice Quiz

Q1. Understanding organizational structure is important for employees at all levels of the organization, including top executives, project managers, and department heads.

  • True
  • False

Q2. Vertical information flow is typically associated with efficiency and adaptation, whereas horizontal information flow is typically associated with coordination and flexibility.

  • True
  • False

Q3. Using the rational system lens, we see that organizational structure helps with building formal relationships among groups and individuals and shows how they interact with each other

  • True
  • False

Q4. The only important relationships between organizational units, groups, and individuals are those contained in a clear organizational chart.

  • True
  • False

Lesson 2.2 Practice Quiz

Q1. Which of the following statements is NOT consistent with contingency theory?

  • Structure alone is not very likely to lead you to higher performance.
  • The external environment does not impact decisions about organizational structure.
  • The right organizational structure depends on a series of contextual factors.
  • The fit between structure and the organization’s context could lead to better performance.

Q2. Contingency theory emphasizes that organizational structure has a direct impact on organizational performance.

  • True
  • False

Q3. Managers should consider the culture of the organization when making design choices. If a company aims to foster creativity and encourage innovation, which of the following design elements would be most appropriate?

  • Bureaucracy in a hierarchical organization
  • Decentralized structures that focus on collaboration within and between groups
  • Formalized relationships among departmental groups
  • Monitored interaction between coworkers from different units

Q4. The size of the organization is irrelevant to choosing the best organizational structure.

  • True
  • False

Lesson 2.3 Practice Quiz

Q1. Within a functional structure, groups are formed around people engaged in similar activities.

  • True
  • False

Q2. Functional structures are typically more efficient and can reduce the duplication of roles in the organization.

  • True
  • False

Q3. Functional structures are most likely to be seen in all the following types of organizations EXCEPT:

  • Firms that value outcomes like efficiency and consistency
  • Small to medium sized firms
  • Large firms
  • Firms operating in a relatively stable environment
  • Organizations with a limited number of product offerings

Lesson 2.4 Practice Quiz

Q1. Within a divisional structure, firms create business units that operate much like separate firms.

  • True
  • False

Q2. Divisional structures can foster competition for resources between different business units in the same company.

  • True
  • False

Q3. Divisional structures can include groupings around products and services, different geographic regions, and different types of customers.

  • True
  • False

Q4. Divisional structures would likely be appropriate in all of the following contexts EXCEPT:

  • Firms that serve distinct markets
  • Firms that operate in different geographic locations
  • Firms that compete in complex and changing environments
  • Firms with a low-cost strategy
  • Larger firms with many product offerings

Lesson 2.5 Practice Quiz

Q1. One of the structures that can be incorporated into a matrix structure is the project-based organization.

  • True
  • False

Q2. A key intended benefit of the matrix structure is to capture the benefits from multiple organizational structures.

  • True
  • False

Q3. The matrix structure makes sense to consider when companies face competing pressures on two broad dimensions.

  • True
  • False

Q4. A main advantage of the matrix arises from having two different perspectives (e.g., project and function), each having strong input into decisions.

  • True
  • False

Lesson 2.6 Practice Quiz

Q1. A network structure tends to suit an organization that outsources tasks not in their area of expertise.

  • True
  • False

Q2. A network structure can help to promote flexibility and reduced costs in organizations.

  • True
  • False

Q3. Network structures often result in a loss of organizational control and lower employee loyalty.

  • True
  • False

Q4. The use of team-based structures designed around specific projects have increased in popularity because such a structure:

  • Allows for an organization to become efficient and have more structure and control
  • Allows for an organization to be more nimble and adaptable
  • Allows for an organization to create many layers of hierarchy
  • Allows for an organization to hire more employees who have deep expertise

Q5. An organization that combines a functional structure and a divisional structure is best defined as having a network structure.

  • True
  • False

Quiz : Organizational Structure

Q1. Vertical information flow is typically associated with efficiency and adaptation, whereas horizontal information flow is typically associated with coordination and flexibility.

  • True
  • False

Q2. According to contingency theory, the best structure is contingent upon a variety of different contextual factors that you need to account for when making design choices.

  • True
  • False

Q3. Contingency theory suggests that the fit between organizational structure and the organization’s context could contribute to increased performance in the organization.

  • True
  • False

Q4. Functional structures are typically more efficient and can reduce the duplication of roles in the organization.

  • True
  • False

Q5. Within a functional structure, being internally focused makes it easier to adapt to the changing external environment and develop innovative new products.

  • True
  • False

Q6. Divisional structures can foster competition for resources between different business units in the same company.

  • True
  • False

Q7. Divisional structures would likely be appropriate in all of the following contexts EXCEPT:

  • Larger firms with many product offerings
  • Firms that operate in different geographic locations
  • Firms that compete in complex and changing environments
  • Firms that serve distinct markets
  • Firms with a low-cost strategy

Q8. A key intended benefit of the matrix structure is to capture the benefits from multiple organizational structures.

  • True
  • False

Q9. Network structures often result in a loss of organizational control and lower employee loyalty.

  • True
  • False

Q10. A hybrid structure is a combination of two or more structures.

  • True
  • False

Designing the Organization Week 03 Quiz Answers

Lesson 3.1 Practice Quiz

Q1. Managers are sometimes driven to grow their organizations because of a desire to increase profits, a desire for greater efficiency through economies of scale, and pressure from shareholders and outside investors.

  • True
  • False

Q2. Engaging in an acquisition to increase the economies of scope and scale in the organization is an example of organic growth.

  • True
  • False

Q3. All of the following are common challenges associated with organizational growth EXCEPT:

  • Lack of open system perspective
  • Inability to quickly respond to the environment
  • Overstretched competencies
  • Difficulty maintaining culture

Lesson 3.2 Practice Quiz

Q1. When organizations grow and expand, it’s usually easier to exercise control and maintain coordination.

  • True
  • False

Q2. As organizations grow, managers often find that there is an inherent tension between keeping things under control and maintaining flexibility.

  • True
  • False

Q3. Which of the following is an example of a rational system control mechanism?

  • Bureaucratic control
  • Incentive control
  • Clan control
  • Market control

Q4. Relying on competition between divisions in an organization is an example of bureaucratic control.

  • True
  • False

Q5. All of the following are features of bureaucracy EXCEPT:

  • Informal network relationships
  • Written records and communication
  • Hiring based on technical expertise
  • Separates position from the person

Lesson 3.3 Practice Quiz

Q1. Achieving efficiency is the most important goal a manager must achieve when designing an organization.

  • True
  • False

Q2. Mechanistic organizations tend to have jobs that are clearly defined and highly specialized.

  • True
  • False

Q3. Hierarchical decision-making is relatively more important in organic than in mechanistic designs.

  • True
  • False

Q4. Which of these contingencies would suggest that an organic design rather than a mechanistic one would be more effective?

  • Large size
  • Routine tasks
  • Low cost/imitation strategy
  • Innovation based strategy

Lesson 3.4 Practice Quiz

Q1. Which of the following is not true?

  • Understanding the life cycle of organizations can help managers to recognize likely challenges and form effective strategies to counter those challenges.
  • In the organizational life cycle model, organizations tend to have similar structures and features at each stage.
  • The organizational life cycle model describes different stages that organizations tend to pass through.
  • Every organization experiences the same crises in the order outlined in life cycle models.

Q2. The life cycle model consists of four stages: entrepreneurial, collectivity, formalization and reformation.

  • True
  • False

Q3. The need for developing a clear vision and establishing culture is associated with the collectivity stage of the organizational life cycle.

  • True
  • False

Q4. Which of the following is a challenge facing firms during the elaboration stage of the organizational life cycle?

  • Renewed focus on teamwork and collaboration
  • Implementation of policies and procedures
  • Bureaucracy
  • Adapting to the changing external environments

Lesson 3.5 Practice Quiz

Q1. All of the following are typically true when an organization relies on hierarchy, EXCEPT:

  • It can make organizational units work as “silos.”
  • It can make decision-making too centralized and so make the organization unresponsive.
  • It coordinates people’s efforts within the hierarchy
  • It can make decision-making too centralized and so can slow down the process.
  • It encourages managers to coordinate horizontally across units.

Q2. Direct contact across units tends to work better for sharing information than for influencing decisions.

  • True
  • False

Q3. An organization has a culture of collaboration and teamwork but has failed to establish a regular and reliable way to coordinate information flow across units. The managers of the organization decided to implement a more formalized and stable information sharing channel across units. Which of the following is most consistent with their intentions?

  • Liaison
  • Direct contact
  • Hierarchy

Q4. Committees, task forces, and cross-functional teams are all integrative mechanisms that involve groups or teams. They offer more integration capability than direct contact or liaison, as they bring together several units and can make important decisions about the shared objectives of the task in question.

  • True
  • False

Lesson 3.6 Practice Quiz

Q1. Growth tends to highlight tensions between the rational system view of organizations and the natural and open system views.

  • True
  • False

Q2. As organizations grow, they tend to adopt structures and practices that make them appear more like rational systems. 1 point

  • True
  • False

Quiz : Growth and Organizational Life Cycle

Q1. Engaging in an acquisition to increase the economies of scope and scale in the organization is an example of organic growth.

  • True
  • False

Q2. Organizational growth typically makes it more difficult to ensure that things are well-coordinated and controlled throughout the organization.

  • True
  • False

Q3. A small startup organization has very little formal structure and few written policies and procedures. But, it has a strong organizational culture where there are shared values that are deeply held and strong informal norms about appropriate behavior. This is an example of which type of control mechanism?

  • Clan control
  • Incentive control
  • Bureaucratic control
  • Market control

Q4. All of the following are features of bureaucracy EXCEPT:

  • Written records and communication
  • Informal network relationships
  • Hiring based on technical expertise
  • Separates position from the person

Q5. In organic designs, decision-making processes tend to be centralized and then augmented through cross-functional teams and task forces.

  • True
  • False

Q6. Which of the following is not true?

  • The organizational life cycle model describes different stages that organizations tend to pass through.
  • Understanding the life cycle of organizations can help managers to recognize likely challenges and form effective strategies to counter those challenges.
  • In the organizational life cycle model, organizations tend to have similar structures and features at each stage.
  • Every organization experiences the same crises in the order outlined in life cycle models.

Q7. Which of the following is a challenge existing at the collectivity stage of the organizational life cycle?

  • The need for establishing an organizational culture
  • The need for strong leadership
  • The need to delegate responsibility
  • The need for a clear vision

Q8. The most fundamental integrating mechanism is the hierarchy because it does not incorporate an authority structure.

  • True
  • False

Q9. Direct contact across units tends to work better for sharing information than for influencing decisions.

  • True
  • False

Q10. As organizations grow, they tend to adopt structures and practices that make them appear more like rational systems.

  • True
  • False

Designing the Organization Week 04 Quiz Answers

Lesson 4.1 Practice Quiz

Q1. The external environment includes all of the elements outside the organization that have the potential to influence the organization.

  • True
  • False

Q2. The economy, changes in demographics, political elections, and legal issues tend to be factors of the task environment.

  • True
  • False

Q3. Technology is a factor of the general environment that should be considered.

  • True
  • False

Lesson 4.2 Practice Quiz

Q1. The complexity of the organization’s environment is determined by how quickly relevant elements of the environment are changing.

  • True
  • False

Q2. Rapid changes in technology in a firm’s industry would decrease the stability of the external environment.

  • True
  • False

Q3. In response to increasing complexity in the external environment, firms tend to create more specialized departments.

  • True
  • False

Q4. Boundary spanning roles are usually filled by individuals who do not work for the focal firm.

  • True
  • False

Lesson 4.3 Practice Quiz

Q1. A main assumption of resource dependence theory is that organizations typically do not control every resource necessary to survive.

  • True
  • False

Q2. A company is the sole supplier of a rare type of stone that it distributes to certain furniture manufacturers for use in high-end kitchen countertops. Many manufacturers have started using a synthetic material that is nearly indistinguishable from the natural stone. This supplier has control over a resource that would be considered:

  • Scarce and critical
  • Not scarce or critical
  • Not scarce but critical
  • Scarce but not critical

Q3. Control over resources that are critical and scarce most likely confers power on organizations.

  • True
  • False

Q4. What are the broad strategies that organizations use to deal with resource dependence (check all that apply)?

  • Use of horizontal linkage mechanisms
  • Create linkages with other organizations
  • Attempt to control the environment directly

Lesson 4.4 Practice Quiz

Q1. Firms have to adapt to changes in their respective markets, or this could ultimately lead to loss of market share or even failure.

  • True
  • False

Q2. Firm competencies are supported by all of the following EXCEPT:

  • People
  • Systems
  • Structures
  • Processes
  • Convenience

Q3. Exploitation means that a firm does not focus its resources on innovation.

  • True
  • False

Q4. Exploration consists of experimentation and learning around new alternatives and processes.

  • True
  • False

Q5. Competency traps occur when firms focus too much on exploration while neglecting exploitation.

  • True
  • False

Lesson 4.5 Practice Quiz

Q1. History shows that most firms are able to adapt to changes in the environment over time.

  • True
  • False

Q2. If we compare the Fortune 500 list from 1955 to 2017, only 60% percent of firms remained on the list of successful firms.

  • True
  • False

Q3. Sustaining innovations refer to the improvements in the existing products and services made by the firm. These innovations are essentially driven by

  • Customer demand
  • Top management
  • Shareholders
  • Engineers

Q4. Low-end disruption happens when a disruptor starts their business at the low end of the market and gradually ____.

  • flood the market with low-quality goods
  • develops a feature that appeals to a whole new market segment
  • moves up the market by improving the quality of the product
  • establishes a permanent niche selling cheap-quality products to the low-end segment of the market

Q5. The innovator’s dilemma refers to the situation in which an incumbent firm feels threatened by a disruptor but must decide whether to continue offering their better quality product to the most profitable customers or compete with the disruptor directly by offering a lower quality product that their current customers don’t want.

  • True
  • False

Q6. Most changes in technology can be classified as disruptive.

  • True
  • False

Lesson 4.6 Practice Quiz

Q1. One way a firm or organization may avoid disruption is by creating a separate unit that can operate independently from the rest of the business.

  • True
  • False

Q2. An ambidextrous organization has the ability to focus on exploration rather than exploitation.

  • True
  • False

Q3. An ambidextrous organization allows the following:

  • A way to overcome the innovator’s dilemma
  • All of the above
  • Exploration of new opportunities to better the firm’s chance of survival
  • Growth in the disruptive unit
  • Separate processes and incentives in the disruptive unit

Quiz : External Environment

Q1. The economy, changes in demographics, political elections, and legal issues tend to be factors of the task environment.

  • True
  • False

Q2. The complexity of the organization’s environment is determined by how quickly relevant elements of the environment are changing.

  • True
  • False

Q3. As uncertainty in the environment increases, firms tend to respond in all of the following ways EXCEPT:

  • Collecting data from the external environments
  • Adding boundary-spanning roles
  • Creating specialized departments
  • Implementing mechanistic structures

Q4. Resource dependence theory suggests that organizations must control all of the resources in their value chain.

  • True
  • False

Q5. According to resource dependence theory, an organization that engages in efforts to lobby the government for passage of legislation favorable to the organization is an example of creating key linkages.

  • True
  • False

Q6. Competencies are known as “things a firm is good at.”

  • True
  • False

Q7. Managers with a long-term focus are more likely to fall into a competency trap.

  • True
  • False

Q8. Sustaining innovations refer to the improvements in the existing products and services made by the firm. These innovations are essentially driven by

  • Top management
  • Engineers
  • Customer demand
  • Shareholders

Q9. The innovator’s dilemma refers to the situation in which an incumbent firm feels threatened by a disruptor but must decide whether to continue offering their better quality product to the most profitable customers or compete with the disruptor directly by offering a lower quality product that their current customers don’t want.

  • True
  • False

Q10. One way a firm or organization may avoid disruption is by creating a separate unit that can operate independently from the rest of the business.

  • True
  • False
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