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Q1. This course includes ___ modules.
Q2. I am required to purchase a textbook for this course.
Q3. Which of the following activities is NOT required in each module?
Q4. The following tool(s) will help me use the discussion forums:
Q5. If I have a problem in the course I should:
Q6. Which of the following activity is optional?
Q7. Supplemental readings are optional.
Q8. You may attempt each Module Quiz two times every four hours.
Q1. Using a rational systems lens, power originates outside the organization.
Q2. Using an open systems lens, power tends to be derived from communities of people?
Q3. Kahenman & Tversky are known for developing the framework about the 5 basic sources of power.
Q4. Power can be derived from positional or personal sources.
Q5. Power tends to be derived from relationships, culture, and internal networks when viewed with which organizational lens?
Q6. Leaders tend to have referent power when followers recognize their legitimate position of power.
Q1. Organizational networks are made up of connections called “ties”.
Q2. Common examples of individuals whom one might have strong ties to include all the following EXCEPT:
Q1. One way to use power is to allocate valuable resources to help gain support.
Q2. The tendency to return actions “in kind” is also known as the principal of reciprocity.
Q3. Managers can help shape behavior using incentives and the threat of punishment.
Q1. Organizational change only refers to dramatic changes aimed at transforming the entire organizations.
Q2. Successful change efforts focus not only on WHAT you want to change, but also on HOW you plan to change.
Q3. Force field analysis suggests that effective change can only happen when the forces driving change are stronger than the forces working against it.
Q1. All of the following are examples of tools to address resistance to change EXCEPT:
Q2. Which of the following are examples of ways to use the change strategy of education and communication?
Q1. Which of the following situations would typically call for a slower pace of change:
Q2. Once leaders find a change strategy that works, they should always use that strategy to implement change in future situations.
Q1. Creating a sense of urgency is an important motivational tool because major change initiatives require sustained cooperation from many people.
Q1. Resource dependence theory tends to be more of a rational system view of power.
Q2. Legitimate, reward and ________ are sources of power identified as positional bases of power.
Q3. Which of the following does Network “Centrality” refers to?
Q4. Information from the strong ties in your network is more likely to be redundant.
Q5. Co-opting antagonists occurs when you bring individuals who are opposed to your plan onto the team.
Q6. Lewin’s model suggests that organizational change happens in three stages: freeze, unfreeze, and refreeze.
Q7. Managers should choose the change tool that best fits with the type of resistance one is likely to experience when implementing a change.
Q8. A rapid, top-down, and pre-planned change strategy, is typically the best approach.
Q9. Which of the following are the steps to Kotter’s change model that are concerned with activating leadership and setting the direction of the change effort? Select all that apply:
Q10. Many change agents underestimate the sustained political power required to drive major change.
Q1. When trying to understand an organization’s culture, it is more important to understand the organization’s values than its norms.
Q2. Subcultures are more likely to develop as an organization grows.
Q1. The observable elements of organizational culture are typically described as:
Q2. The Basic Assumptions of an organization’s culture are described as:
Q1. Consensus refers to how widely the norms and values in a culture are shared.
Q2. High intensity and low consensus can lead to the development of subcultures and even warring factions in the organization.
Q1. Cultures with high levels of adaptability are associated with poor firm performance.
Q1. Societal shifts in culture rarely have an impact on organizational culture.
Q2. Examples of Substantive Action are:
Q1. Organizational culture is an individual level phenomenon that is experienced differently by each individual.
Q2. Organizational culture is likely to be particularly salient when viewing the organization through a _______ lens.
Q3. Basic assumptions of organizational culture can be described as the tip of the iceberg of culture because they are observable.
Q4. An organization’s enacted values are found in a formal values statement
Q5. When people disagree on the content of certain values and norms in a culture, but feel very passionately about those values, we say that there is:
Q6. Strong cultures can give a sense of unity of purpose to employees so that it easier for leaders to encourage desired behaviors in employees.
Q7. Strong organizational cultures almost always lead to _____.
Q8. Offering fixed pay to employees and encouraging centralized decision-making are two of the main practices that helped to build culture at Southwest Airlines.
Q9. Because of bottom-up processes, there can be a disconnect between the culture that leaders think exists, and the culture that employees actually experience.
Q10. Investing in training for both current and new employees is a key way to shape company culture.
Q1. From an open system perspective, decision-making is a political process which tends to be made by people using their power to influence decisions.
Q1. An optimal decision outcome is the goal of a rational decision-making process.
Q2. A rational decision-making process would include which of the following steps: (check all that apply).
Q3. The rational decision-making model guarantees the chosen alternative will produce the best outcome.
Q4. Managers typically intend to make rational decisions but usually use decision-making processes best described as boundedly rational.
Q5. Rational decision-making models account for ambiguity and uncertainty that is inherent in most decisions.
Q6. Boundedly rational decision-making is most consistent with a rational system perspective.
Q7. If someone has trouble making decisions, it’s usually best to “go with your gut”.
Q1. Expert decision-makers may experience both excessive optimism and overconﬁdence.
Q2. Anchoring bias occurs when we underestimate the starting point in the decision-making process.
Q3. Present bias occurs when we underweight outcomes that will occur in the distant future.
Q4. Groupthink occurs when a group considers less information and yields stronger agreement than is warranted.
Q1. According to the prospect theory, gains loom larger than losses.
Q2. Which is NOT a recommendation to combat status quo bias?
Q1. Ethics in organizations are shaped by both individual and organizational factors.
Q2. Government regulations, societal norms and societal values typically do not impact how people decipher right from wrong within organizations.
Q3. Managers tend to have ethical breakdowns when faced with pressure and/or adversity. Below are all common breakdowns EXCEPT:
Q1. When managers attempt to “rationalize” their behaviors and actions, it is known as Moral Disengagement.
Q2. “Euphemistic Labeling” is also another way of renaming potential harmful or unethical behaviors with better sounding language.
Q3. Choosing reference groups that make our own unethical behavior seem better is known as which form of rationalization?
Q4. Which of the following is NOT a common rationalization approach by managers?
Q1. If you feel that something is wrong, it is definitely worth looking at in more detail. This notion is referred as the gut test.
Q2. Which of the following is a challenge for implementing the Rights test?
Q3. By using a categorical imperative test, we try to ensure that the decision is fair to all parties and that they receive the same outcome.
Q1. A rational system view of decision-making tends to portray a systematic and logical process.
Q2. A rational decision-making process assumes that decision-makers will end their search as soon as a satisfactory alternative is found.
Q3. Managers work until they reach an optimal solution in a boundedly rational decision-making process.
Q4. Employing intuitive decision making rather than rational decision making, is useful when the decision maker lacks deep subject matter expertise
Q5. You can use anchoring bias to your favor in a negotiation by making the initial offer.
Q6. Controllability bias is based on a belief that you will be able to control future outcomes.
Q7. Keeping what we have rather than taking a better alternative is known as the _________.
Q8. Ethical fading occurs when
Q9. When we compare our own unethical behavior to something that is even worse, it is known as
Q10. In practice, it is difficult to implement the utilitarianism ethical decision-making test because people don’t always agree about what is fair, both in terms of outcome and process.
Q1. The behavioral approach of leadership tends to consider the importance of cultivating relationships vs. the focusing on tasks.
Q1. The path-goal model of leadership is best described as a behavioral model.
Q2. According to path-goal theory, participative and supportive leadership styles can be applied interchangeably.
Q3. A leader who is new to an organization tends to beneﬁt from employing a participative leadership style when employees may have more expertise than the leader.
Q4. A leader may use an achievement-oriented style along with a participative leadership style.
Q1. A leader who inspires others tends to be a transformational leader.
Q2. Charisma is necessary for someone to be a transformational leader.
Q3. Intellectual Stimulation energizes and challenges followers to re-imagine the status quo and make the new vision real.
Q1. Charisma is the most important personality trait of an eﬀective leader.
Q2. Because of their focus on creating systems and processes, time tellers are thought to be more successful leaders than clock builders.
Q1. From a rational system view, a leader’s influence is based primarily on mediating conflict and creating a strong culture.
Q2. The contingency approach to leadership suggests that great leaders have certain inherent traits.
Q3. According to the managerial grid framework, leaders with high concern for relationships are the most successful.
Q4. The path-goal model of leadership highlights the following four leadership styles:
Q5. A new employee tends to beneﬁt the most when a leader uses a participative style.
Q6. Viewing leadership as an exchange is consistent with a __________ form of leadership.
Q7. Tapping into intrinsic motivation is consistent with transactional leadership.
Q8. A transformational leader may also be transactional in their leadership style.
Q9. Level 5 leaders display a unique combination of:
Q10. The window and mirror principle suggests that great leaders first look to hold others accountable when things go poorly.
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This course is intended for audiences of all experiences who are interested in learning about new skills in a business context; there are no prerequisite courses.